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Desire/Lust

In the King James Version of the NT, epithumia and its verb form are translated primarily by “desire” and “lust.” It appears the KJV translators used “lust” where they thought the desire was for something sinful as in James 4:2. Later translations follow the KJV in using the words “desire” and “lust,” but they differ in translating specific verses, such as James 1:14. The American Standard Version and the New American Standard Version translate “lust,” while the Revised Standard Version and the New King James Version translate “desire.”

It is not true that “lust” simply means “desire” as some contend. The purpose of this contention seems to be to make the lust in James 1:14 desire without regard to whether it is good or bad. If the lust of James 1:14 can be rendered “desire” without reference to good or bad, then some reason that the temptation of Jesus was like that described in James 1:14. But, the lust spoken of by James draws men away. Desire for good does not draw men away, desire for (lust after) evil does. The temptation of Jesus was not like that of James 1:14. Jesus never had any desire which drew Him away.

Let us distinguish between “desire” and “lust.” Can anyone doubt that King David desired Bathsheba? Did he look on her to “...lust after her..." (Mt. 5:28)? Who would deny it? Did Jacob desire Rachel (Gen. 29:18)? Who would deny it? He loved her and wanted her for his wife. At this time, did Jacob lust after Rachel? Who would affirm it? Did Potiphar’s wife lust after Joseph (Gen. 39:7ff)? Yes! Did Joseph either desire, or lust after, her? No! Can you see the difference?

Look at Col. 3:5. Why translate epithumia kaken as “evil concupiscence” or “evil desires” rather than “evil lusts”? Is it because lusts are always evil? While desires can be either good or evil?

It is true that a desire can be for something good or bad, but when “lust” is used in the NT, it denotes something bad. Do you know of an exception?

Let us define epithumia: “Epithumia...in Scripture...” includes “...the whole world of active lusts and desires....” (Synonyms Of The New Testament, R. C. Trench, p. 324). “It appears now and then, though rarely, in the N. T. in a good sense....much oftener in a bad....” (RCT, P. 325). “Our English word ‘lust,’ once harmless enough....has had very much the same history” (RCT, p. 325).

Let us define “bring forth” (tikto, gm): “to bring forth, bear, produce...prop. of women giving birth (Lk. 1:57).....metaph. to bear, bring forth: amartian (sin, gm), in the simile where h epithumia (the lust, gm) is likened to a female, James 1:15” (Thayer, p. 623). Consider “draw away” (exelko, gm): “to draw out,...metaph...to lure forth..James 1:14, where the metaphor is taken from hunting and fishing: as game is lured from its covert, so man by lust is allured from the safety of self-restraint to sin...The language of hunting seems to be transferred here...to the seduction of a harlot, personated by epithumia (lust, gm)...” (Thayer, p. 222).

Did the KJV translators err in translating epithumia “lust” in James 1:14? No! Does translating it “desire” as some have done mean that James had in mind “desire” without regard to whether it was good or evil? No! For we must still contend with the fact that James was talking about something which draws men away. Away from what? Away from that which is good. What kind of desires draw men away from that which is good?