MARRIAGE-DIVORCE-REMARRIAGE

Few subjects of our generation are more controversial than marriage, divorce and remarriage. The controversy has even spilled over into the church. One of the popular arguments of some brethren is that since Mt.19:9 is part of the gospel, it applies to Christians only. They take this position because they contend that at the time of Adam's sin God put in force what they speak of as "God's universal moral law." This law, they contend, will be in force until the end of time. According to this doctrine all men are accountable to"God's universal moral law" until they become Christians. It is only after they become Christians that Mt.19:9 and the rest of the gospel applies to them. Before becoming Christians they can marry, divorce and remarry freely. Only those who are Christians can violate the Lord's teachings of Mt.19:9 and thus sin against God. In this article we will raise some questions about this teaching and seek answers from the Word of God.

The first question raised is, "Where in the Bible do we find the terms of "God's universal moral law"revealed? Brother Homer Hailey wrote, " The specific words in which the precepts of that law were expressed were not recorded and preserved,"(A Commentary on Isaiah, p.58). If "God's universal moral law" is binding on all non-Christians until the end of time, specifically, what commandments pertaining to marriage and divorce must be kept under this law? How can man know when he is guilty of sin under this law? The Bible gives no answer to such questions. This being true, common sense tells us that God would not hold men accountable to some law which He had not clearly revealed to them.

The next question to be considered is this. Does Mt.19:9 apply to Christians only? Notice what the Lord teaches in the verse. "Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery." The Lord said, "Whosoever." This term is not limited to Christians who marry Christians but includes all ("whosoever") who enter into the marriage covenant. The "whosoever" of Mt.19:9 is just as inclusive as the "whosoever" of 2 Jn.9, where we read, "Whosoever transgresseth and abideth not in the doctrine of Christ, hath not God." God has included this verse as part of the gospel message and who would contend that it applies to Christians only?

Another significant thought is this. Since Mt.19:9 is, admittedly, a part of the gospel of Christ, both Christians and non-Christians are subject to it because Jesus commanded, "Go ye into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature, " Mk.16:15. Notice that Jesus said the gospel is to be preached to every creature, not to Christians only.

Too, if all men, except Christians, are subject to what is referred to as "God's universal moral law" and are not subject to the gospel, how can they become Christians and be saved? The Bible informs us that the gospel is the "power of God unto salvation," Rom.1:16. No man today can be saved without obeying the gospel of Christ.. Those who contend that men are under "God's universal moral law" condemn men to eternal condemnation because they teach that the gospel applies to Christians only. If men are not subject to the gospel of Christ, what power has God provided to save us? NONE!